Diagnostic Test

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Which city are you from?

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Important Notes:

Your scores for these sections will be determined by the number of questions you answer correctly. Nothing is subtracted from a score if you answer a question incorrectly. Therefore, to maximize your scores it is better for you to guess at an answer than not to respond at all. Work as rapidly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not spend too much time on questions that are too difficult for you. Go on to the other questions and come back to the difficult ones later.

Some or all of the passages in this test have been adapted from published material to provide the examinee with significant problems for analysis and evaluation. To make the passages suitable for testing purposes, the style, content, or point of view of the original may have been altered. The ideas contained in the passages do not necessarily represent the opinions of the Graduate Record Examinations Board or Educational Testing Service.

Verbal Reasoning

SECTION 1 (12 Questions, Time - 18 minutes)

For each question, indicate the best answer using the directions given. If a question has answer choices with 'circles' , then the correct answer consists of a single choice. If a question has answer choices 'in square boxes' , then the correct answer consists of one or more answer choices. You will also have "Hints" available below the answer choices with square boxes, do read them before answering those questions. Read the directions for each question carefully.

To answer questions based on a reading passage, you may need to scroll to read the entire passage. You may also use your keyboard to navigate through the passage.

Select Next to proceed.

You are running out of time! few seconds are remaining.

1. In the 1950s, the country’s inhabitants were _________ : most of them knew very little about foreign countries.

A. partisan

B. erudite

C. insular

D. cosmopolitan

E. imperturbable

Hint

2. Given how (i) _________ the shortcomings of the standard economic model are in its portrayal of human behavior, the failure of many economists to respond to them is astonishing. They continue to fill the journals with yet more proofs of yet more (ii) _________ theorems. Others, by contrast, accept the criticisms as a challenge, seeking to expand the basic model to embrace a wider range of things people do.

Blank (i)

A. overlooked

B. occasional

C. patent

Blank (ii)

D. comprehensive

E. improbable

F. pervasive

Hint

3. To the untutored eye the tightly forested Ardennes hills around Sedan look quite (i) _________, (ii)_________ place through which to advance a modern army; even with today’s more numerous and better roads and bridges, the woods and the river Meuse form a significant (iii) _________ .

Blank (i)

A. impenetrable

B. inconsiderable

C. uncultivated

Blank (ii)

D. a makeshift

E. an unpropitious

F. an unremarkable

Blank (iii)

G. resource

H. impediment

I. passage

Hint

Questions 4 to 6 are based on this passage.

In Raisin in the Sun, Lorraine Hansberry does not reject integration or the economic and moral promise of the American dream; rather, she remains loyal to this dream while looking, realistically, at its incomplete realization. Once we recognize this dual vision, we can accept the play’s ironic nuances as deliberate social commentaries by Hansberry rather than as the “unintentional” irony that Bigs by attributes to the work. Indeed, a curiously persistent refusal to credit Hansberry with a capacity for intentional irony has led some critics to interpret the play’s thematic conflicts as mere confusion, contradiction, or eclecticism. Isaacs, for example, cannot easily reconcile Hansberry’s intense concern for her race with her ideal of human reconciliation. But the play’s complex view of Black self-esteem and human solidarity as compatible is no more “contradictory” than Du Bois’ famous, well-considered ideal of ethnic self-awareness coexisting with human unity, or Fanon’s emphasis on an ideal internationalism that also accommodates national identities and roles.

4. The author of the passage would probably consider which of the following judgments to be most similar to the reasoning of the critics highlighted?

A. The world is certainly flat; therefore, the person proposing to sail around it is unquestionably foolhardy.

B. Radioactivity cannot be directly perceived; therefore, a scientist could not possibly control it in a laboratory.

C. The painter of this picture could not intend it to be funny; therefore, its humor must result from a lack of skill.

D. Traditional social mores are beneficial to culture; therefore, anyone who deviates from them acts destructively.

E. Filmmakers who produce documentaries deal exclusively with facts; therefore, a filmmaker who reinterprets particular events is misleading us.

5. In which sentence of the passage does the author provide examples that reinforce an argument against a critical response cited earlier in the passage?

A. The first sentence (“In Raisin ... realization”)

B. The second sentence (“Once we ... work”)

C. The third sentence (“Indeed, ... eclecticism”)

D. The fourth sentence (“Isaacs, ... reconciliation”)

E. The fifth sentence (“But the ... roles”)

6. In the context in which it appears, “realization” most nearly means

A. understanding

B. accomplishment

C. depiction

D. recognition

E. discovery

Question 7 is based on this passage.

According to the conventional view, serfdom in nineteenth-century Russia inhibited economic growth. In this view Russian peasants’ status as serfs kept them poor through burdensome taxes in cash, in labor, and in-kind; through restrictions on mobility; and through various forms of coercion. Melton, however, argues that serfdom was perfectly compatible with economic growth, because many Russian serfs were able to get around landlords’ rules and regulations. If serfs could pay for passports, they were usually granted permission to leave the estate. If they could pay the fine, they could establish a separate household; and if they had the resources, they could hire laborers to cultivate the communal lands, while they themselves engaged in trade or worked as migrant laborers in cities.

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

7. It can be inferred from the passage that the “rules and regulations” affecting serfdom in Russia involved

For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply

A. responsibility for the work needed to accomplish certain defined tasks

B. restrictions on freedom of movement

C. limitations on the ability to set up an independent household

Hint

For each of Questions 8 to 11, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

8. Early critics of Emily Dickinson’s poetry mistook for simplemindedness the surface of artlessness that in fact she constructed with such _______.

A. astonishment

B. craft

C. cunning

D. innocence

E. naïveté

F. vexation

Hint

9. While in many ways their personalities could not have been more different—she was ebullient where he was glum, relaxed where he was awkward, garrulous where he was ___________ they were surprisingly well suited.

A. solicitous

B. munificent

C. irresolute

D. laconic

E. fastidious

F. taciturn

Hint

10. Since becoming commissioner, Mr. Vincente has snapped at the heels of the dominant firms in European industry more ______________ than his smoother predecessors and has consequently acquired many more enemies.

A. sporadically

B. irascibly

C. persistently

D. pugnaciously

E. fitfully

F. judiciously

Hint

11. Even in this business, where ___________ is part of everyday life, a talent for lying is not something usually found on one’s resume.

A. aspiration

B. mendacity

C. prevarication

D. insensitivity

E. baseness

F. avarice

Hint

Question 12 is based on this passage.

Electric washing machines, first introduced in the United States in 1925, significantly reduced the amount of time spent washing a given amount of clothes, yet the average amount of time households spent washing clothes increased after 1925. This increase is partially accounted for by the fact that many urban households had previously sent their clothes to professional laundries. But the average amount of time spent washing clothes also increased for rural households with no access to professional laundries.

12. Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the time spent washing clothes increased in rural areas?

A. People with access to an electric washing machine typically wore their clothes many fewer times before washing them than did people without access to electric washing machines.

B. Households that had sent their clothes to professional laundries before 1925 were more likely than other households to purchase an electric washing machine when they became available.

C. People living in urban households that had previously sent their clothes to professional laundries typically owned more clothes than did people living in rural households.

D. The earliest electric washing machines required the user to spend much more time beside the machine than do modern electric washing machines.

E. In the 1920s and 1930s the proportion of rural households with electricity was smaller than the proportion of urban households with electricity.

You are running out of time! few seconds are remaining.

Quantitative Reasoning

SECTION 1 (12 Questions, Time - 18 minutes)

For each question, indicate the best answer using the directions given.

Read the directions for each question carefully. If a question has answer choices with 'circles' , then the correct answer consists of a single choice. If a question has answer choices with 'square boxes' , then the correct answer consists of one or more answer choices. To answer questions based on a data presentation, you may need to scroll to see the entire presentation.

All numbers used are real numbers. All figures are assumed to lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

Geometric figures, such as lines, circles, triangles, and quadrilaterals, are not necessarily drawn to scale. That is, you should not assume that quantities such as lengths and angle measures are as they appear in a figure. You should assume, however, that lines shown as straight are actually straight, points on a line are in the order shown, and more generally, all geometric objects are in the relative positions shown. For questions with geometric figures, you should base your answers on geometric reasoning, not on estimating or comparing quantities by sight or by measurement.

Coordinate systems, such as xy-planes and number lines, are drawn to scale; therefore you can read, estimate, or compare quantities in such figures by sight or by measurement.

Graphical data presentations, such as bar graphs, circle graphs, and line graphs, are drawn to scale; therefore, you can read, estimate, or compare data values by sight or by measurement.

Select Next to proceed.

You are running out of time! few seconds are remaining.

For each of Questions 1 to 5, compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices and fill in the corresponding circle to the right of the question.

1. Quantity A is greater.
2. Quantity B is greater.
3. The two quantities are equal.
4. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

1. During an experiment, the pressure of a fixed mass of gas increased from 40 pounds per square inch(psi) to 50 psi. Throughout the experiment, the pressure, P psi, and the volume, V cubic inches, of gas varied in such a way that the value of the product the PV was constant.

Quantity A: The volume of the gas when the pressure was 40 psi
Quantity B: 1.2 times the volume of the gas when the pressure was 50 psi

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

2. Quantity A: w+d
Quantity B: c+z

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

3. n is an even negative integer

Quantity A: \[\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^n\]
Quantity B: \[\left(-3\right)^n\]

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

4. Today the price of a table was reduced from 20 percent from what it was yesterday, and the price of a lamp was reduced by 30 percent from what it was yesterday.

Quantity A: The dollar amount of the reduction in the price of the table.
Quantity B: The dollar amount of the reduction in the price of the lamp.

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

5. S is a set of 8 numbers, of which 4 are negative and 4 are positive.

Quantity A: The average(arithmetic mean) of the numbers in S
Quantity B: The median of the numbers in S

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

6. For each integer n>1, let A(n) denote the sum of integers from 1 to n. For example, A(100)= 1+2+3+...+100=5,050. What's the value of A(200)?

A. 10,100

B. 15,050

C. 15,150

D. 20,100

E. 21,500

7. Points A, B, C and D are on the line below, and AB = CD = \[\frac{1}{3}\](BC). What is the coordinate of C?

A. \[\frac{13}{30}\]

B. \[\frac{9}{20}\]

C. \[\frac{11}{24}\]

D. \[\frac{7}{15}\]

E. \[\frac{29}{60}\]

8. The figure below shows the graph of the function f defined by f(x) = |2x|+4 for all numbers x. For which of the following functions g, defined for all numbers x, does the graph of g intersect the graph of f?

A. g(x) = x-2

B. g(x) = x+3

C. g(x) = 2x-2

D. g(x) = 2x+3

E. g(x) = 3x-2

9. A car got 33 miles per gallon using gasoline that cost $2.95 gallon. Approximately what was the cost, in dollars, of the gasoline used in driving the car 350 miles?

A. $10

B. $20

C. $30

D. $40

E. $50

10. Select one or more answer choices according to the specific question directions.

Which two of the following numbers have a product that is between -1 and 0? Indicate both of the numbers

A. -20

B. -10

C. \[2^{-4}\]

D. \[3^{-2}\]

11. The populations of the five most populous cities in the United States in April 2000 is listed in the table below. The total population of the United States in April 2000 was 281,422,000. Based on the data shown, the population of the three most populous cities combined was what percent of the total population of the United States in April 2000?

Give your answer to the nearest whole percent.

12. The revenue from lottery ticket sales is divided between prize money and the various uses shown in the graph labeled "Proceeds." In 2009, what percent of the money spent on tickets was returned to the purchasers in the form of prize money?

A. 23.5%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 66%

E. 74 %

You are running out of time! few seconds are remaining.

Verbal Reasoning

SECTION 2 (15 Questions, Time - 23 minutes)

For each question, indicate the best answer using the directions given. If a question has answer choices with 'circles' , then the correct answer consists of a single choice. If a question has answer choices 'in square boxes' , then the correct answer consists of one or more answer choices. You will also have "Hints" available below the answer choices with square boxes, do read them before answering those questions. Read the directions for each question carefully.

To answer questions based on a reading passage, you may need to scroll to read the entire passage. You may also use your keyboard to navigate through the passage.

Select Next to proceed.

You are running out of time! few seconds are remaining.

1. Dramatic literature often _________ the history of a culture in that it takes as its subject matter the important events that have shaped and guided the culture.

A. confounds

B. repudiates

C. recapitulates

D. anticipates

E. polarizes

2. There has been much hand-wringing about how unprepared American students are for college. Graff reverses this perspective, suggesting that colleges are unprepared for students. In his analysis, the university culture is largely (i) _________ entering students because academic culture fails to make connections to the kinds of arguments and cultural references that students grasp. Understandably, many students view academic life as (ii) _________ ritual.

Blank (i)

A. primed for

B. opaque to

C. essential for

Blank (ii)

D. an arcane

E. a laudable

F. a painstaking

Hint

3. The narratives that vanquished peoples have created of their defeat have, according to Schivelbusch, fallen into several identifiable types. In one of these, the vanquished manage to (i) _________ the victor’s triumph as the result of some spurious advantage, the victors being truly inferior where it counts. Often the winners (ii) _________ this interpretation, worrying about the cultural or moral costs of their triumph and so giving some credence to the losers’ story.

Blank (i)

A. construe

B. anoint

C. acknowledge

Blank (ii)

D. take issue with

E. disregard

F. collude in

Hint

4. That the President manages the economy is an assumption (i) _________ the prevailing wisdom that dominates electoral politics in the United States. As a result, presidential elections have become referenda on the business cycle, whose fortuitous turnings are (ii) _________ the President. Presidents are properly accountable for their executive and legislative performance, and certainly their actions may have profound effects on the economy. But these effects are (iii). _________ Unfortunately, modern political campaigns are fought on the untenable premise that Presidents can deliberately produce precise economic results.

Blank (i)

A. peripheral to

B. central to

C. at odds with

Blank (ii)

D. justifiably personified in

E. erroneously attributed to

F. occasionally associated with

Blank (iii)

G. usually long-lasting

H. regrettably unnoticeable

I. largely unpredictable

Hint

Questions 5 and 6 are based on this passage.

The nearly circular orbits of planets in our solar system led scientists to expect that planets around other stars would also reside in circular orbits. However, most known extrasolar planets reside in highly elongated, not circular, orbits. Why? The best clue comes from comets in our solar system. Comets formed in circular orbits but were gravitationally flung into their present-day elliptical orbits when they ventured too close to planets. Astronomers suspect that pairs of planets also engage in this slingshot activity, leaving them in disturbed, elliptical orbits. If two planets form in close orbits, one will be scattered inward (toward its star), the other outward. They will likely then travel close enough to neighboring planets to disturb their orbits also.

5. According to the passage, which of the following factors help account for the elliptical shape of the orbits of extrasolar planets?

A. The planets’ formation in close proximity to other planets

B. The gravitational influence of planets whose original orbits have been disturbed

C. The gravitational influence of comets

Hint

6. The passage suggests that two planets formed in close orbits that engaged in “slingshot activity” would be likely to

A. deflect away from each other

B. change the shape of each other’s orbit

C. affect the orbits of any neighboring planets

Hint

Question 7 is based on this passage.

Even after numerous products made with artificial sweeteners became available, sugar consumption per capita continued to rise. Now manufacturers are introducing fat-free versions of various foods that they claim have the taste and texture of the traditional high-fat versions. Even if the manufacturers’ claim is true, given that the availability of sugar-free foods did not reduce sugar consumption, it is unlikely that the availability of these fat-free foods will reduce fat consumption.

7. Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the argument?

A. Several kinds of fat substitute are available to manufacturers, each of which gives a noticeably different taste and texture to products that contain it.

B. The products made with artificial sweeteners did not taste like products made with sugar.

C. The foods brought out in sugar-free versions did not generally have reduced levels of fat, but many of the fat-free versions about to be introduced are low in sugar.

D. People who regularly consume products containing artificial sweeteners are more likely than others to consume fat-free foods.

E. Not all foods containing fat can be produced in fat-free versions.

Questions 8 to 10 are based on this passage.

Recent studies of sediment in the North Atlantic’s deep waters reveal possible cyclical patterns in the history of Earth’s climate. The rock fragments in these sediments are too large to have been transported there by ocean currents; they must have reached their present locations by traveling in large icebergs that floated long distances from their point of origin before melting. Geologist Gerard Bond noticed that some of the sediment grains were stained with iron oxide, evidence that they originated in locales where glaciers had overrun outcrops of red sandstone.

Bond’s detailed analysis of deep-water sediment cores showed changes in the mix of sediment sources over time: the proportion of these red-stained grains fluctuated back and forth from lows of 5 percent to highs of about 17 percent, and these fluctuations occurred in a nearly regular 1,500-year cycle.
Bond hypothesized that the alternating cycles might be evidence of changes in ocean-water circulation and therefore in Earth’s climate. He knew that the sources of the red-stained grains were generally closer to the North Pole than were the places yielding a high proportion of “clean” grains.

At certain times, apparently, more icebergs from the Arctic Ocean in the far north were traveling south well into the North Atlantic before melting and
shedding their sediment.

Ocean waters are constantly moving, and water temperature is both a cause and an effect of this movement. As water cools, it becomes denser and sinks to the ocean’s bottom. During some periods, the bottom layer of the world’s oceans comes from cold, dense water sinking in the far North Atlantic. This causes the warm surface waters of the Gulf Stream to be pulled northward. Bond realized that during such periods, the influx of these warm surface waters into northern regions could cause a large proportion of the icebergs that bear red grains to melt before traveling very far into the North Atlantic. But sometimes the ocean’s dynamic changes, and waters from the Gulf Stream do not travel northward in this way. During these periods, surface waters in the North Atlantic would generally be colder, permitting icebergs bearing red-stained grains to travel farther south in the North Atlantic before melting and depositing their sediment.

The onset of the so-called Little Ice Age (1300-1860), which followed the Medieval Warm Period of the eighth through tenth centuries, may represent the most recent time that the ocean’s dynamic changed in this way. If ongoing climate-history studies support Bond’s hypothesis of 1,500-year cycles, scientists may establish a major natural rhythm in Earth’s temperatures that could then be extrapolated into the future. Because the midpoint of the Medieval Warm Period was about A.D. 850, an extension of Bond’s cycles would place the midpoint of the next warm interval in the twenty-fourth century.

8. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the rock fragments contained in the sediments studied by Bond?

A. The majority of them are composed of red sandstone.

B. They must have reached their present location over 1,500 years ago.

C. They were carried by icebergs to their present location.

D. Most of them were carried to their present location during a warm period in Earth’s climatic history.

E. They are unlikely to have been carried to their present location during the Little Ice Age.

9. In the final paragraph of the passage, the author is concerned primarily with

A. answering a question about Earth’s climatic history

B. pointing out a potential flaw in Bond’s hypothesis

C. suggesting a new focus for the study of ocean sediments

D. tracing the general history of Earth’s climate

E. discussing possible implications of Bond’s hypothesis

10. According to the passage, Bond hypothesized that which of the following circumstances would allow red-stained sediment grains to reach more southerly latitudes?

A. Warm waters being pulled northward from the Gulf Stream

B. Climatic conditions causing icebergs to melt relatively quickly

C. Icebergs containing a higher proportion of iron oxide than usual

D. The formation of more icebergs than usual in the far north

E. The presence of cold surface waters in the North Atlantic

For each of Questions 11 to 13, select the two answer choices that when used to complete the sentence blank, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

11. The vegetation at Stone Mountain, the best known of the large rock masses known as monadnocks, is far from _________ , having been decimated by the hiking traffic.

A. blighted

B. endangered

C. picturesque

D. pristine

E. undisturbed

F. vulnerable

Hint

12. The macromolecule RNA is common to all living beings, and DNA, which is found in all organisms except some bacteria, is almost as _________ .

A. comprehensive

B. fundamental

C. inclusive

D. universal

E. significant

F. ubiquitous

Hint

13. The ex-minister’s real crime, in the eyes of his _________ political friends who subsequently abandoned him, was not so much that he was wrong as that he raised questions that must not be raised.

A. erstwhile

B. proxy

C. false

D. self-styled

E. onetime

F. surrogate

Hint

Q 14 and 15 are based on this passage.

In 1996, the State of Arizona introduced a statute that divests the juvenile court of jurisdiction over juvenile offenders fifteen years of age or older who are accused of first- and second-degree murder, forcible sexual assault, armed robbery or other violent felony offenses. Opponents have rightfully argued that by assigning automatic criminal responsibility to juveniles based solely on their age and the type of offense with which they are charged, many of the extenuating circumstances that would have previously been considered by a juvenile court judge are now largely irrelevant. In fact, if prosecution finds sufficient grounds for charging a juvenile offender with, say, armed robbery, juvenile court review will be entirely bypassed, and the offender will automatically be tried in criminal court as an adult. The choice of court, therefore, rests entirely in the discretion of the prosecution. Regrettably, courts have been reluctant to question the constitutionality of such discretion, and little hope remains that they would subject it to judicial review any time soon.

14. The author mentions armed robbery primarily in order to

A. provide an example of a type of offense with which offenders are rarely charged in juvenile court

B. show how the prosecution can automatically decide a jurisdictional issue involving some juvenile offenders

C. illustrate a type of offense that the new statute will make more difficult to prosecute

D. explain why extenuating circumstances must be considered when assigning criminal responsibility to juvenile offenders

E. emphasize the severity of the offenses that are typically considered only in cases tried in criminal court

15. The passage suggests which one of the following about a sixteen-year old offender charged with armed robbery in the state of Arizona prior to 1996?

A. The offender could be prosecuted either in juvenile or in criminal court.

B. The prosecution did not have sufficient grounds to charge the offender with a more serious crime.

C. The court would consider all extenuating circumstances relevant to his case.

D. The prosecution could decide to bypass juvenile court review and try the offender in criminal court.

E. The choice of courts did not rest entirely in the discretion of the prosecution.

Hint

You are running out of time! few seconds are remaining.

Quantitative Reasoning

SECTION 2 (15 Questions, Time - 23 minutes)

For each question, indicate the best answer using the directions given.

All numbers used are real numbers. All figures are assumed to lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.

Coordinate systems, such as xy-planes and number lines, are drawn to scale; therefore you can read, estimate, or compare quantities in such figures by sight or by measurement.

Graphical data presentations, such as bar graphs, circle graphs, and line graphs, are drawn to scale; therefore, you can read, estimate, or compare data values by sight or by measurement.

Select Next to proceed.

You are running out of time! few seconds are remaining.

For each of Questions 1 to 6, compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices and fill in the corresponding circle to the right of the question.

1. Quantity A is greater.
2. Quantity B is greater.
3. The two quantities are equal.
4. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

1. In the figure above, triangle RST is inscribed in a circle. The measure of angle RST is greater than 90°, and the area of the circle is 25π.?

Quantity A: The length of line segment RT
Quantity B: 10

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

2. A company plans to manufacture two types of hammers, type R and type S. The cost of manufacturing each hammer of type S is $0.05 less than twice the cost of manufacturing each hammer of type R.

Quantity A: The cost of manufacturing 1000 hammers of type R and 1000 hammers of type S.
Quantity B: The cost of manufacturing 1500 hammers of type S.

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

3. Graham`s Catering Service currently employs three chefs and offers three different meals. For an upcoming event, the catering service must provide three meals, with each chef cooking one of the meals.

Quantity A: The number of assignments of chefs to meals if each chef must cook a different meal
Quantity B: The number of assignments of chefs to meals if each chef may cook any of the three meals

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

4. Of the 100 eighth-graders at Easton Junior High, 60 students take gym, 40 take a foreign language, and 30 take both gym and a foreign language.

Quantity A: The number of assignments of chefs to meals if each chef must cook a different meal
Quantity B: The number of students taking neither gym nor a foreign language

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

5. Quantity A: PS
Quantity B: SR

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

6. Machine R, working alone at a constant rate, produces x units of a product in 30 minutes, and machine S, working alone at a constant rate produces x units of the product in 48 minutes, where x is a positive integer.

Quantity A: The number of units of the product the machine R, working alone at its constant rate, produces in 3 hours.
Quantity B: The number of units of the product the machine S, working alone at its constant rate, produces in 4 hours.

A. Quantity A is greater.

B. Quantity B is greater.

C. The two quantities are equal.

D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

7. In the xy-plane, triangular region R is bounded by the lines x=0, y=0 and 4x+3y=60. Which of the following points lie inside the region R?

Indicate all such points

A. (2,18)

B. (5,12)

C. (10,7)

D. (12,3)

E. (15,2)

Hint

8. Select one or more answer choices according to the specific question directions.

Each employee of a certain company is in either Department X or Department Y, and there are more than twice as many employees in Department X as in Department Y. The average (arithmetic mean) salary is dollar 25,000 for the employees in Department X and is dollar 35,000 for the employees in Department Y. Which of the following amounts could be the average salary for all of the employees in the company?
Indicate all such amounts.

A. $26,000

B. $28,000

C. $29,000

D. $30,000

E. $31,000

F. $32,000

G. $34,000

9. Of the 700 members of a certain organization, 120 are lawyers. Two members of the organization will be selected at random. Which of the following is the closest to the probability that neither of the members selected will be a lawyer?

A. 0.5

B. 0.6

C. 0.7

D. 0.8

E. 0.9

10. A manager is forming a 6-person team to work on a certain project. From the 11 candidates available for the team, the manager has already chosen 3 to be on the team. In selecting the other 3 team members, how many different combinations of 3 of the remaining candidates does the manager have to choose from?

A. 6

B. 24

C. 56

D. 120

E. 462

11. The figure below shows the probability distribution of a continuous random variable X. For each of the five intervals show, the figure gives the probability that the value of X is in that interval. What is the probability that 1

12. For each year, the work time, in hours, required to pay for a food item is the average price of the food item divided by the average hourly wage for rank-and-file manufacturing workers. The work time in the graph is given in minutes.

In 1997, at the rates shown in the graph, the work time required to pay for which of the following food items was greatest?

A. 10 pounds of bread

B. 5 gallons of milk

C. 3 pounds of coffee

D. 20 pounds of sugar

E. 5 dozen eggs

13. If the average hourly wage of the rank-and-file manufacturing worker in 1919 was $0.55, which of the following is closest to the average price of ½ gallons of milk in 1919?

A. 0.80

B. 0.65

C. 0.50

D. 0.35

E. 0.20

14. At the rates shown in the graph, which of the following is closest to the number of hours of work time that was required to pay for 20 kilograms of sugar in 1919? (1 kilogram equals 2.2 pounds, rounded to the nearest 0.1 pound.)

A. 11

B. 14

C. 20

D. 31

E. 53

15. A group of 5,000 investors responded to a survey asking whether they owned stocks and whether they owned bonds. Of the group, 20 percent responded that they owned only one of the two types of investments. If r is the number of investors in the group who owned stocks but not bonds, which of the following represents the number if investors in the group who owned bonds but not stocks, in terms of r?

A. 5,000-r

B. 1,000-r

C. r-1,000

D. 1,000r

E. (0.2)(5,000-r)

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